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Why is good indefinable and what is moore’s definition of they naturalistic fallacy? Moore has a very unique version of good. Maybe because he spent 40 years researching the general idea of good or maybe its not. “All distribution of praise or blame to any personage or thing that has existed, now exists, or will exist does give some answer to the question “What is good?” There are far to many people, events and discussions …

…that the definition of the Naturalistic Fallacy is “ any attempts to define good, weather as “ the pleasant,” “the desirable,” “the rational,” “That which is approved,” or any thing else. He does not think that you can say that anything is good he believes that good is good any that is the end of it. He thinks that if you say that “pleasure” is “good” then you can also say that “yellow” is “Orange.” ------------------------------------------------------------------------ **Bibliography**